Use $f''(x)=2x-6$ to demonstrate that the function $y=f(x)$ has a point of inflection at $x=3$.
The bottom graph is the $f''$ you are given. The top curve is one possible $f$ with that second derivative. Watch how the sign below matches the bend above.
$f''(3)=0$ only makes $x=3$ a candidate. It is the change of sign either side that makes it a point of inflection.
All three second derivatives below are zero at $x=3$. The first is the one in the question. Choose one, move the test points either side, and see whether the sign changes.
$f''$ goes from negative to positive at $x=3$, so the curve goes from concave down to concave up. That makes $x=3$ a point of inflection. Every test point gives the same signs, because $2x-6$ is linear and crosses zero only once.
$f''(3)=0$ here too, but $f''$ is positive on both sides. The curve is concave up the whole way through, so $x=3$ is not a point of inflection.
This $f''$ isn’t linear, but it still changes sign at $x=3$, from negative to positive. So $x=3$ is a point of inflection.
Try each step yourself before you reveal it.
At a point of inflection, the second derivative is zero. Substitute $x=3$.
$$f''(3)=2\times3-6=0$$
Solving $f''(x)=0$ to get $x=3$ is also accepted.
Marker: correctly demonstrates that the value of the second derivative is equal to zero at $x=3$
Zero on its own isn’t enough. The second derivative has to change sign about the point. $f''(x)$ is linear, so it changes sign only once. Test a value to the left of $x=3$.
Other $x$-values on the left are accepted, such as $f''(1)=-4$.
Marker: correctly establishes that $f''(x)$ is negative to the left of the point
Now test a value to the right.
Other $x$-values on the right are accepted, such as $f''(3.5)=1$.
Marker: correctly establishes that $f''(x)$ is positive to the right of the point
Now state the conclusion, and say what it rests on.
This mark can only be awarded if your earlier working supports the decision. A conclusion with no sign test behind it doesn’t get the mark.
Marker: correctly concludes the point $x=3$ is an inflection point
The second derivative is given, and it is linear. The whole question is three substitutions and a sentence.
If I had to guess where you might lose marks, it would be stopping after $f''(3)=0$. That only makes $x=3$ a candidate. $f''(x)=(x-3)^2$ is also zero at $x=3$, but it never changes sign, so there is no point of inflection there. Show the sign change on both sides, then write the conclusion.
Only mark this done when you could do it without help. Reading the solution does not count.
Question wording and marking-guide steps are from the 2025 QCAA Mathematical Methods external assessment, © State of Queensland (QCAA) 2025, licensed under CC BY 4.0, and have been adapted. Tangent Tuition is not affiliated with the QCAA.
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